Fatou’s lemma is a fundamental result in measure theory that deals with the relationship between limits and integrals of sequences of non-negative measurable functions. See the wikipedia page for further info.
Statement of Fatou’s Lemma
Let $(f_n)$ be a sequence of non-negative measurable functions on a measure space $(X,\mu)$. Then:
$$\int \liminf_{n \to \infty} f_n \,d\mu \leq \liminf_{n \to \infty} \int f_n \,d\mu$$In words, this means that the integral of the limit inferior of a sequence of functions is less than or equal to the limit inferior of their integrals.
Preliminaries
$$\liminf_{n \to \infty} f_n(x) = \sup_{n \geq 1} \inf_{k \geq n} f_k(x)$$First, let’s understand what we want liminf to capture. Informally, the liminf should be the “lowest value that the sequence eventually stays above.”
Let’s break this down:
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For a fixed $n$, consider $\inf_{k \geq n} f_k(x)$ This represents the lowest value the sequence takes from position $n$ onwards.
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Now, why do we take $\sup_{n \geq 1}$ of these infimums? Let’s see with an example:
Let’s compute $\inf_{k \geq n} f_k(x)$ for different $n$:
- For $n = 1$: $\inf\{1,0,2,0,3,0,...\} = 0$
- For $n = 2$: $\inf\{0,2,0,3,0,...\} = 0$
- For $n = 3$: $\inf\{2,0,3,0,...\} = 0$ And so on…
Notice that no matter how far out we go, there will always be zeros, so each infimum is 0.
$$0, 0, 1, 1, 1, ...$$Here:
- For $n = 1$: $\inf\{0,0,1,1,1,...\} = 0$
- For $n = 2$: $\inf\{0,1,1,1,...\} = 0$
- For $n = 3$: $\inf\{1,1,1,...\} = 1$
- For $n = 4$: $\inf\{1,1,...\} = 1$
By taking $\sup_{n \geq 1}$ of these infimums, we capture the value that the sequence eventually stays above (1 in this case).
The key insights are:
- $\inf_{k \geq n} f_k(x)$ gives us a lower bound for all terms from position $n$ onwards
- As $n$ increases, these lower bounds might increase (they can’t decrease, as we’re looking at a subset of the previous terms)
- Taking the supremum of all these lower bounds gives us the highest lower bound that’s valid “eventually”
This is exactly what we want liminf to be: the highest value that eventually serves as a lower bound for the sequence.
$$\liminf_{n \to \infty} f_n(x) = \lim_{n \to \infty} \inf\{f_k(x): k \geq n\}$$Proof:
Let’s denote $a_n = \inf\{f_k(x): k \geq n\}$ for fixed $x$. We need to prove:
$$\liminf_{n \to \infty} f_n(x) = \lim_{n \to \infty} a_n$$$$ \liminf_{n \to \infty} f_n(x) = \sup_{n \geq 1} \inf_{k \geq n} f_k(x) $$Now, let’s prove both inequalities:
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$$a_m = \inf\{f_k(x): k \geq m\} \geq \inf\{f_k(x): k \geq n\} = a_n$$
This is because we’re taking the infimum over a smaller set.
- $$\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = \sup_{n \geq 1} a_n$$
- $$\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = \sup_{n \geq 1} \inf_{k \geq n} f_k(x)$$
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And this is exactly the definition of $\liminf_{n \to \infty} f_n(x)$
The key insight here is that $(a_n)$ being increasing means its limit exists and equals its supremum. This increasing property comes from taking infimums over progressively smaller sets as $n$ increases.
Proof
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We first start from the lemma above.
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For each $n$, define $g_n(x) = \inf\{f_k(x): k \geq n\}$ Note that $g_n(x) \leq f_n(x)$ for all $x$ and $n$
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The sequence $(g_n)$ is increasing: For any $m > n$, $g_m(x) = \inf\{f_k(x): k \geq m\} \geq \inf\{f_k(x): k \geq n\} = g_n(x)$
- $$\liminf_{n \to \infty} f_n(x) = \lim_{n \to \infty} g_n(x)$$
- $$\int \liminf_{n \to \infty} f_n \,d\mu = \int \lim_{n \to \infty} g_n \,d\mu = \lim_{n \to \infty} \int g_n \,d\mu$$
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$$\int g_n \,d\mu \leq \int f_n \,d\mu$$
(because $g_n(x) \leq f_n(x)$ for all $x$, and the integral preserves inequalities)
- $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \int g_n \,d\mu \leq \liminf_{n \to \infty} \int f_n \,d\mu$$
- $$\int \liminf_{n \to \infty} f_n \,d\mu = \lim_{n \to \infty} \int g_n \,d\mu \leq \liminf_{n \to \infty} \int f_n \,d\mu$$
This completes the proof.
Key Intuition
The lemma essentially states that when taking limits of integrals, you can’t “lose” area in the limit. The integral of the limit inferior provides a lower bound for the limit inferior of the integrals.